In a message dated 98-09-15 13:05:30 EDT, Voragh presents:
<< DuraS tuq tlhIngan yejquv patlh luDub 'e' reH lunIDtaH DuraS be'nI'pu'
lurSa' be'etor je. >>
Again, a canon source on which I need an explanation.
Why does the adverb {reH} follow the object-marker of the clause {'e'}? I
thought adverbs precede object+verb+subject basic sentence
peHruS